1) The body is capable of catabolizing many substances as
sources of energy. Which of the following could be used as a source of energy
but would be the last utilized for this purpose?
A) glucose in the blood
B) protein in muscle cells
C) glycogen in muscle cells
D) calcium phosphate in bone
E) fat in adipose tissue
B) protein in muscle cells
C) glycogen in muscle cells
D) calcium phosphate in bone
E) fat in adipose tissue
2) Some nutrients are considered "essential" in
the diets of certain animals because
A) only those animals use the nutrients.
B) only some foods contain them.
C) they are necessary coenzymes.
D) they are subunits of important polymers.
E) they cannot be manufactured by the organism.
B) only some foods contain them.
C) they are necessary coenzymes.
D) they are subunits of important polymers.
E) they cannot be manufactured by the organism.
3) Which of the following is not one of the four classes
of essential nutrients?
A) essential minerals
B) essential amino acids
C) essential vitamins
D) essential sugars
E) essential fatty acids
B) essential amino acids
C) essential vitamins
D) essential sugars
E) essential fatty acids
4) Animals require certain basic amino acids in their
diet. An amino acid that is referred to as nonessential would be best described
as one that
A) is less important than an essential amino acid.
B) can be made from other substances.
C) is not found in many proteins.
D) is not used by the organism in biosynthesis.
E) must be ingested in the diet.
B) can be made from other substances.
C) is not found in many proteins.
D) is not used by the organism in biosynthesis.
E) must be ingested in the diet.
5) What are essential amino acids?
A) those amino acids that are generally more abundant
in vegetables than in meat
B) those that are absent in fruits and vegetables
C) molecules that are not synthesized by most animals
D) the only amino acids found in human proteins
E) one class of vitamins that is indispensable for neurological development
B) those that are absent in fruits and vegetables
C) molecules that are not synthesized by most animals
D) the only amino acids found in human proteins
E) one class of vitamins that is indispensable for neurological development
6) All of the following statements about nutritional
disorders are correct except:
A) Beriberi is caused by a vitamin B1 deficiency.
B) Rickets is caused by a vitamin C deficiency.
C) Lack of iodine in the diet affects metabolic rate.
D) Weak bones are caused by a calcium deficiency.
E) Obesity is caused by overnourishment.
B) Rickets is caused by a vitamin C deficiency.
C) Lack of iodine in the diet affects metabolic rate.
D) Weak bones are caused by a calcium deficiency.
E) Obesity is caused by overnourishment.
7) Which of the following vitamins is incorrectly
associated with its use?
A) vitamin E = protection of membrane phospholipids
from oxidation
B) vitamin A = incorporation into the visual pigment of the eye
C) vitamin K = production of red blood cells
D) vitamin C = synthesis of connective tissue
E) vitamin D = calcium absorption and bone formation
B) vitamin A = incorporation into the visual pigment of the eye
C) vitamin K = production of red blood cells
D) vitamin C = synthesis of connective tissue
E) vitamin D = calcium absorption and bone formation
8) Which of the following is an example of a fat-soluble
vitamin?
A) vitamin C
B) biotin
C) vitamin B12
D) vitamin A
E) iodine
9) Because they accumulate in the body, excess ingestion
of which of the following can have toxic effects?
A) water-soluble vitamins
B) proteins
C) sugars
D) fat-soluble vitamins
E) calcium and phosphorus
B) proteins
C) sugars
D) fat-soluble vitamins
E) calcium and phosphorus
10) Which of the following minerals is incorrectly
associated with its use in animals?
A) calciumhorizontalconstruction and maintenance of
bone
B) magnesiumhorizontalcofactor in enzymes that split ATP
C) phosphorushorizontalingredient of nucleic acids
D) sodiumhorizontalimportant in nerve function
E) ironhorizontalregulation of metabolic rate
B) magnesiumhorizontalcofactor in enzymes that split ATP
C) phosphorushorizontalingredient of nucleic acids
D) sodiumhorizontalimportant in nerve function
E) ironhorizontalregulation of metabolic rate
11) In a variation of the game "Twenty
Questions," you are asked whether the animal being thought of is a
suspension feeder or not. Which of the following questions could not provide
you with any useful information?
A) Is it bigger than your biology book?
B) Does it have tentacles?
C) Does it have teeth?
D) Does it have claws?
E) Is it aquatic?
B) Does it have tentacles?
C) Does it have teeth?
D) Does it have claws?
E) Is it aquatic?
12) Which of the following terms could be applied to any
organism with a digestive system?
A) autotroph
B) heterotroph
C) herbivore
D) omnivore
E) bulk feeder
13) The ticks you might find attached to your dog are best
described as
A) bulk feeders.
B) substrate feeders.
C) fluid feeders.
D) deposit feeders.
E) suspension feeders.
B) substrate feeders.
C) fluid feeders.
D) deposit feeders.
E) suspension feeders.
14) During the process of digestion, fats are broken down
when fatty acids are detached from glycerol and proteins are degraded when
amino acids are separated from each other. What do these two processes have in
common?
A) Both processes can be catalyzed by the same enzyme.
B) Both involve the addition of a water molecule to break bonds.
C) Both processes occur intracellularly in most organisms.
D) Both require ATP as an energy source.
E) Both require the presence of hydrochloric acid to lower pH.
B) Both involve the addition of a water molecule to break bonds.
C) Both processes occur intracellularly in most organisms.
D) Both require ATP as an energy source.
E) Both require the presence of hydrochloric acid to lower pH.
15) Which of the following digestive processes requires
enzymes?
A) ingestion
B) hydrolysis
C) peristalsis
D) elimination
E) absorption
16)
Tapeworms are in class Cestoda, which is one type of
flatworm. The tapeworm lacks a gastrovascular cavity and a circulatory system,
yet it manages to survive very well in the host's intestinal tract. Which
response best applies?
A)
Peristaltic movements in the host's intestinal tract replace the need for a
gastrovascular cavity in the worm.
B)
Peristaltic movements in the host's intestinal tract replace the need for a
circulatory system in the worm.
C) Since
the nutrients are being predigested by enzymes present in the host's intestinal
tract, there is no need for a gastrovascular cavity.
D) The
diffusion of nutrients is not a limiting factor to survival.
E)
Parasites do not need a gastrovascular cavity.
17)
Which is a correct statement concerning the insect
circulatory system?
A) There is
no blood, or circulating fluid.
B)
Circulating fluid bathes tissues directly.
C) Blood
transports oxygen and nutrients to all the tissues.
D) There is
no heart, or pump.
E) Blood is
always contained in a system of tubes called tracheae.
18)
Organisms in which a circulating body fluid is
distinct from the fluid that directly surrounds the body's cells are likely to
have
A) a closed
circulatory system.
B) an open
circulatory system.
C) a
gastrovascular cavity.
D) gills.
E)
hemolymph.
19)
Which of the following blood components would
interfere with the functioning of an open circulatory system but not a closed
one?
A)
antibodies
B) water
C) red
blood cells
D) amino
acids
E)
electrolytes
20)
If the amount of interstitial fluid surrounding the
capillary beds of the lungs were to increase significantly, it would be
expected that
A) you
could not make a prediction based on this information.
B) the
amount of carbon dioxide entering the lungs from the blood would increase.
C) the
pressure would cause the capillary beds to burst.
D) the
amount of oxygen entering the circulation from the lungs would decrease.
E) the
amount of oxygen entering the circulation from the lungs would increase.
21)
Three-chambered hearts generally consist of which of
the following numbers of atria and ventricles?
A) three
atria; no ventricles
B) two
atria; one ventricle
C) one
atrium; one ventricle
D) one
atrium; two ventricles
E) no
atria; three ventricles
22)
In which animal does blood flow from the
pulmocutaneous circulation to the heart before circulating through the rest of
the body?
A) frog
B) annelid
C) mollusk
D) fish
E) insect
23)
Which of the following are the only vertebrates in
which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without
first returning to the heart?
A) mammals
B) birds
C)
amphibians
D) fishes
E) reptiles
24)
To adjust blood pressure independently in the
capillaries of the gas-exchange surface and in the capillaries of the general
body circulation, an organism would need
A) a
four-chambered heart.
B) an open
circulatory system.
C) a
two-chambered heart.
D) a
hemocoel.
E) a lymphatic
system.
25)
A red blood cell is in an artery in the left arm of a
human. How many capillary beds must this cell pass through before it is
returned to the left ventricle of the heart?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
26)
Through how many capillary beds must a red blood cell
of a human travel if it takes the shortest possible route from the right
ventricle to the right atrium?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
27)
Which of the following sequences does not indicate a
direct pathway that blood might follow in mammalian circulation?
A) right
ventricle rightarrow pulmonary artery
B) left
ventricle rightarrow aorta
C)
pulmonary vein rightarrow left atrium
D) right
ventricle rightarrow pulmonary vein
E) vena
cava rightarrow right atrium
28)
The sinoatrial node in humans
A) is found
in the lymphatic system.
B) delays
transmission in the cardiac conduction system after the pacemaker has fired.
C) is the
heart's pacemaker.
D) monitors
blood pressure in the aorta.
E) is the
valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
29)
If the atrioventricular node could be surgically
removed from the heart without disrupting signal transmission to the Purkinje
fibers, what would be the effect?
A) Atria
and ventricles would contract at about the same time.
B) Only the
atria would contract.
C) The
heart rate would be decreased.
D) Only the
ventricles would contract.
E) No
apparent effect on heart activity would be observed.
30)
A nonfunctional
SA node would
A) have no
adverse effects on heart contraction.
B) cause no
effects because hormones will take over regulation of the heart beat.
C) cause
the heart to stop beating in an autorhythmic fashion.
D) result
in a block in ventricular contractions.
E) have no
significant effect on stroke volume.
31) In mammalian defenses against invading pathogens, all
of these are considered nonspecific defense mechanisms except
A) antimicrobial proteins.
B) the skin.
C) the immune system.
D) the inflammatory response.
E) mucous membranes.
A) antimicrobial proteins.
B) the skin.
C) the immune system.
D) the inflammatory response.
E) mucous membranes.
32) Physical barriers to invasion by other organisms
A) are difficult for bacteria and viruses to penetrate.
B) may work in conjunction with secretions like tears, perspiration, and mucus.
C) include the skin and the mucous membranes.
D) Only A and C are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
A) are difficult for bacteria and viruses to penetrate.
B) may work in conjunction with secretions like tears, perspiration, and mucus.
C) include the skin and the mucous membranes.
D) Only A and C are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
33) One feature that the eye and the respiratory tract
share is
A) the mucous membranes that cover their surface.
B) their role in the secondary immune response.
C) the formation of similar antibodies.
D) the release of slightly acidic secretions.
E) the production of lysozyme.
A) the mucous membranes that cover their surface.
B) their role in the secondary immune response.
C) the formation of similar antibodies.
D) the release of slightly acidic secretions.
E) the production of lysozyme.
34) After preparing barbeque chicken, you came down with
salmonella poisoning. Why?
A) There was a delay in selection of the population of eosinophils that recognize and are responsible for fighting these bacterial infections.
B) The microbe survived the acidic environment of the stomach and resisted lysosomal degradation in macrophages.
C) The combination of foods eaten at the meal reduced the pH of the stomach sufficiently that the bacterium was not destroyed.
D) The bacterium released chemical messengers that make it resistant to phagocytosis.
E) The chemotactic messengers released by the salmonella bacterium did not attract sufficient neutrophils to entirely destroy the infection.
A) There was a delay in selection of the population of eosinophils that recognize and are responsible for fighting these bacterial infections.
B) The microbe survived the acidic environment of the stomach and resisted lysosomal degradation in macrophages.
C) The combination of foods eaten at the meal reduced the pH of the stomach sufficiently that the bacterium was not destroyed.
D) The bacterium released chemical messengers that make it resistant to phagocytosis.
E) The chemotactic messengers released by the salmonella bacterium did not attract sufficient neutrophils to entirely destroy the infection.
35) The lymphatic system involves which of the following
organs?
A) spleen and lymph nodes
B) appendix and special portions of the small intestine
C) adenoids and tonsils
D) Only A and B are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
A) spleen and lymph nodes
B) appendix and special portions of the small intestine
C) adenoids and tonsils
D) Only A and B are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
36) In the inflammatory response, the absence of which of
the following would prevent all the others from happening?
A) dilation of arterioles
B) leakage of plasma to the affected area
C) increased permeability of blood vessels
D) increased population of phagocytes in the area
E) release of histamine
A) dilation of arterioles
B) leakage of plasma to the affected area
C) increased permeability of blood vessels
D) increased population of phagocytes in the area
E) release of histamine
37) The main effect of histamine is to
A) decrease blood flow.
B) attract T cells.
C) phagocytize pathogens.
D) dilate blood vessels.
E) destroy white blood cells.
A) decrease blood flow.
B) attract T cells.
C) phagocytize pathogens.
D) dilate blood vessels.
E) destroy white blood cells.
38) An alarm substance that triggers an inflammatory
reaction is
A) histamine.
B) adrenaline.
C) thyroxine.
D) pyrogen.
E) immunoglobulin.
A) histamine.
B) adrenaline.
C) thyroxine.
D) pyrogen.
E) immunoglobulin.
39) Inflammatory responses may include all of the
following except
A) increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area.
B) release of substances to increase the blood supply to an inflamed area.
C) reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma.
D) clotting proteins sealing off a localized area.
E) release of substances to stimulate the release of white blood cells from bone marrow.
A) increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area.
B) release of substances to increase the blood supply to an inflamed area.
C) reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma.
D) clotting proteins sealing off a localized area.
E) release of substances to stimulate the release of white blood cells from bone marrow.
40) Each indication below is a clinical characteristic of
inflammation except
A) redness.
B) pain.
C) edema.
D) increased blood flow.
E) decreased temperature.
A) redness.
B) pain.
C) edema.
D) increased blood flow.
E) decreased temperature.
41) What is complement?
A) a specialized white blood cell
B) a hormone from the thymus
C) a set of antigens
D) a group of proteins
E) a form of interferon
A) a specialized white blood cell
B) a hormone from the thymus
C) a set of antigens
D) a group of proteins
E) a form of interferon
42) All of the following are correct statements about
nonspecific defenses except:
A) They may involve the formation of membrane attack complexes.
B) They must be primed by the presence of antigen.
C) They include physical and chemical barriers.
D) They include inflammatory responses.
E) Macrophages and natural killer cells are participants in the process.
A) They may involve the formation of membrane attack complexes.
B) They must be primed by the presence of antigen.
C) They include physical and chemical barriers.
D) They include inflammatory responses.
E) Macrophages and natural killer cells are participants in the process.
43) What are antigens?
A) proteins embedded in B cell membranes
B) antibody-generating foreign macromolecules
C) proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump
D) proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains
E) Both A and C are correct.
A) proteins embedded in B cell membranes
B) antibody-generating foreign macromolecules
C) proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump
D) proteins that consist of two light and two heavy polypeptide chains
E) Both A and C are correct.
44) Jenner successfully used cowpox virus as a vaccine
against a different virus that causes smallpox. Why was he successful even
though he used viruses of different kinds?
A) There are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses.
B) All of the below are true.
C) The immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens.
D) Cowpox and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties.
E) The cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox.
A) There are some antigenic determinants common to both pox viruses.
B) All of the below are true.
C) The immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens.
D) Cowpox and smallpox are antibodies with similar immunizing properties.
E) The cowpox virus made antibodies in response to the presence of smallpox.
45) The clonal selection theory implies that
A) memory cells are present at birth.
B) antigens activate specific lymphocytes.
C) the body selects which antigens it will respond to.
D) related people have similar immune responses.
E) only certain cells can produce interferon.
A) memory cells are present at birth.
B) antigens activate specific lymphocytes.
C) the body selects which antigens it will respond to.
D) related people have similar immune responses.
E) only certain cells can produce interferon.
46) A marine sea star was mistakenly placed in
freshwater and it died. What is the most likely explanation for its death?
A) The sea star is hypertonic to the freshwater, and it could not osmoregulate.
B) The water was not a factor; the sea star simply died.
C) The osmoregulatory system of the sea star could not handle the change in ionic content presented by the freshwater.
D) The contractile vacuoles used to regulate water content ruptured in the freshwater.
E) The sea star was stressed and needed more time to adapt to new conditions.
A) The sea star is hypertonic to the freshwater, and it could not osmoregulate.
B) The water was not a factor; the sea star simply died.
C) The osmoregulatory system of the sea star could not handle the change in ionic content presented by the freshwater.
D) The contractile vacuoles used to regulate water content ruptured in the freshwater.
E) The sea star was stressed and needed more time to adapt to new conditions.
47) Terrestrial animals mainly exchange heat with
the environment by all of the following physical processes except
A) convection. B) evaporation. C) conduction. D) radiation. E) illumination.
A) convection. B) evaporation. C) conduction. D) radiation. E) illumination.
48) Of the mechanisms by which organisms exchange
heat with their surroundings, which one results in only loss of heat from the
organism?
A) convection B) metabolism C) radiation D) conduction E) evaporation
A) convection B) metabolism C) radiation D) conduction E) evaporation
49) When is a snake more or less active? Why?
A) A snake is less active in winter because the food supply is decreased.
B) A snake is less active in winter because it does not need to avoid predators.
C) A snake is more active in summer as a result of being disturbed by other animals.
D) A snake is more active in summer because it can gain body heat by conduction.
E) A snake is more active in summer because that is the period for mating.
A) A snake is less active in winter because the food supply is decreased.
B) A snake is less active in winter because it does not need to avoid predators.
C) A snake is more active in summer as a result of being disturbed by other animals.
D) A snake is more active in summer because it can gain body heat by conduction.
E) A snake is more active in summer because that is the period for mating.
50) Which organism is ectothermic and has little
behavorial ability to adjust its body temperature?
A) tuna fish B) hummingbird C) sea star D) winter moth E) lizard
A) tuna fish B) hummingbird C) sea star D) winter moth E) lizard
51) Which of these vertebrates are endotherms?
A) birds
B) bony fishes
C) cartilaginous fishes
D) amphibians
E) reptiles
A) birds
B) bony fishes
C) cartilaginous fishes
D) amphibians
E) reptiles
52) All of the following are mechanisms of
thermoregulation in terrestrial mammals except
A) changing the rate of metabolic heat production.
B) changing the rate of evaporative loss of heat.
C) changing the rate of heat exchange by anhydrobiosis.
D) relocating to cool areas when too hot or to warm areas when too cold.
E) changing the rate of heat loss by vasodilation and vasoconstriction.
A) changing the rate of metabolic heat production.
B) changing the rate of evaporative loss of heat.
C) changing the rate of heat exchange by anhydrobiosis.
D) relocating to cool areas when too hot or to warm areas when too cold.
E) changing the rate of heat loss by vasodilation and vasoconstriction.
53) A
normally healthy athlete training on a hot, humid day collapses and later dies.
What is the most likely explanation?
A) The training conditions resulted in the athlete losing a large amount of water via perspiration.
B) The athlete was ectothermic, resulting in an unusually high level of metabolism to sustain this level of exercise.
C) The athlete had a high level of aerobic metabolism.
D) The athlete was just out of shape.
E) The athlete's core body temperature soared out of control.
A) The training conditions resulted in the athlete losing a large amount of water via perspiration.
B) The athlete was ectothermic, resulting in an unusually high level of metabolism to sustain this level of exercise.
C) The athlete had a high level of aerobic metabolism.
D) The athlete was just out of shape.
E) The athlete's core body temperature soared out of control.
54) Which
of the following assertions about regulation of body temperature is correct?
A) Ectothermic animals are cold-blooded.
B) Most animals are endotherms.
C) Insects are always ectothermic.
D) Endothermy involves production of heat through metabolism.
E) Mammals are always ectothermic.
A) Ectothermic animals are cold-blooded.
B) Most animals are endotherms.
C) Insects are always ectothermic.
D) Endothermy involves production of heat through metabolism.
E) Mammals are always ectothermic.
55) You
are shoveling snow in the middle of a snowstorm and all of a sudden you begin
to shiver. Why?
A) Shivering increases heat production to closer match the heat loss.
B) Shivering acts as a reflex action stimulated by the sight of snow.
C) The flow of heat to the environment is exceeding metabolic heat production.
D) Only A and B are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
A) Shivering increases heat production to closer match the heat loss.
B) Shivering acts as a reflex action stimulated by the sight of snow.
C) The flow of heat to the environment is exceeding metabolic heat production.
D) Only A and B are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
56) Most terrestrial animals dissipate excess
heat by
A) countercurrent exchange.
B) hibernation.
C) acclimation.
D) vasoconstriction.
E) evaporation.
A) countercurrent exchange.
B) hibernation.
C) acclimation.
D) vasoconstriction.
E) evaporation.
57) Which of the following organisms controls its
body temperature by behavior only?
A) bluefin tuna B) gray wolf C) house sparrow D) bumblebee E) green frog
A) bluefin tuna B) gray wolf C) house sparrow D) bumblebee E) green frog
58) Amphibians and land-dwelling invertebrates
have what in common?
A) They use behavoral adaptations to maintain body temperature.
B) When on land, most have a net loss across a moist body surface.
C) Invertebrates have nothing in common when it comes to regulating body temperature.
D) When in water, they are mainly thermoconformers.
E) They are ectothermic organisms.
A) They use behavoral adaptations to maintain body temperature.
B) When on land, most have a net loss across a moist body surface.
C) Invertebrates have nothing in common when it comes to regulating body temperature.
D) When in water, they are mainly thermoconformers.
E) They are ectothermic organisms.
59) Where is the thermostat of vertebrates
located?
A) liver
B) medulla oblongata
C) hypothalamus
D) subcutaneous layer of the skin
E) thyroid gland
A) liver
B) medulla oblongata
C) hypothalamus
D) subcutaneous layer of the skin
E) thyroid gland
60) All of the following are aspects of
temperature acclimation except:
A) Organisms with countercurrent circulation adaptations have difficulty with thermoregulation.
B) Organisms may adjust some of the mechanisms that control internal temperature.
C) Cell membranes may change their proportions of saturated and unsaturated fats.
D) Cells may produce enzymes with different temperature optima.
E) Cells may increase the production of certain enzymes.
A) Organisms with countercurrent circulation adaptations have difficulty with thermoregulation.
B) Organisms may adjust some of the mechanisms that control internal temperature.
C) Cell membranes may change their proportions of saturated and unsaturated fats.
D) Cells may produce enzymes with different temperature optima.
E) Cells may increase the production of certain enzymes.
61) In herbivores, the observation that
"form fits function" is best characterized by
A) an intestinal tract with a long cecum for digesting plant material.
B) a shorter small intestine than carnivores.
C) a small-diameter large intestine that slows peristalsis.
D) canine teeth for cutting grasses and leaves.
E) both A and B are correct.
A) an intestinal tract with a long cecum for digesting plant material.
B) a shorter small intestine than carnivores.
C) a small-diameter large intestine that slows peristalsis.
D) canine teeth for cutting grasses and leaves.
E) both A and B are correct.
62) Cells
are to tissues as tissues are to
A) membranes. B) organelles. C) organs. D) organisms. E) organ systems.
A) membranes. B) organelles. C) organs. D) organisms. E) organ systems.
63) In a typical multicellular animal, the
circulatory system interacts with various specialized surfaces in order to
exchange materials with the exterior environment. Which of the following is not
an example of such an exchange surface?
A) skin B) intestine C) muscle D) lung E) kidney
A) skin B) intestine C) muscle D) lung E) kidney
64) The epithelium best adapted for a body
surface subject to abrasion is
A) stratified columnar.
B) simple squamous.
C) stratified squamous.
D) simple cuboidal.
E) simple columnar.
A) stratified columnar.
B) simple squamous.
C) stratified squamous.
D) simple cuboidal.
E) simple columnar.
65) Which of the following tissues lines the
kidney ducts?
A) smooth muscle B) adipose C) epithelial D) nervous E) connective
A) smooth muscle B) adipose C) epithelial D) nervous E) connective
66) "Stratified columnar" is a
description which might apply to what type of animal tissue?
A) striated muscle B) nerve C) connective D) epithelial E) bone
A) striated muscle B) nerve C) connective D) epithelial E) bone
67) What is stratified cuboidal epithelium
composed of?
A) an irregularly arranged layer of pillarlike cells
B) several layers of boxlike cells
C) a hierarchical arrangement of flat cells
D) a tight layer of square cells attached to a basement membrane
E) a layer of ciliated, mucus-secreting cells
A) an irregularly arranged layer of pillarlike cells
B) several layers of boxlike cells
C) a hierarchical arrangement of flat cells
D) a tight layer of square cells attached to a basement membrane
E) a layer of ciliated, mucus-secreting cells
68) A
malfunction in this glandular epithelium could adversely affect body
metabolism.
A) exocrine gland
B) sebaceous gland
C) salivary gland
D) bulbourethral gland
E) thyroid gland
A) exocrine gland
B) sebaceous gland
C) salivary gland
D) bulbourethral gland
E) thyroid gland
69) Which statement best links the group of
tissues known as connective tissue? A connective tissue will have
A) an epithelial origin.
B) relatively few cells and a large amount of extracellular matrix.
C) a supporting material such as chondroitin sulfate.
D) an extracellular matrix containing fibers.
E) both A and B.
A) an epithelial origin.
B) relatively few cells and a large amount of extracellular matrix.
C) a supporting material such as chondroitin sulfate.
D) an extracellular matrix containing fibers.
E) both A and B.
70) Which of the following fibers is responsible
for the resistant property of tendons?
A) collagenous fibers
B) spindle fibers
C) fibrin fibers
D) elastin fibers
E) reticular fibers
A) collagenous fibers
B) spindle fibers
C) fibrin fibers
D) elastin fibers
E) reticular fibers
71) If you gently twist your ear lobe it does not
remain distorted because it contains
A) adipose tissue.
B) loose connective tissue.
C) collagen fibers.
D) elastin fibers.
E) reticular fibers.
A) adipose tissue.
B) loose connective tissue.
C) collagen fibers.
D) elastin fibers.
E) reticular fibers.
72) What do fibroblasts secret?
A) fats
B) calcium phosphate for bone
C) interstitial fluids
D) proteins for connective fibers
E) chondrin
A) fats
B) calcium phosphate for bone
C) interstitial fluids
D) proteins for connective fibers
E) chondrin
73) An extended low-fat diet will have the most
significant effect on which of the following?
A) glucose utilization
B) basal metabolic rate (BMR)
C) energy reserves
D) standard metabolic rate (SMR)
E) muscle mass
A) glucose utilization
B) basal metabolic rate (BMR)
C) energy reserves
D) standard metabolic rate (SMR)
E) muscle mass
74) What joins muscles to bones?
A) loose connective tissue
B) Haversian systems
C) tendons
D) ligaments
E) spindle fibers
A) loose connective tissue
B) Haversian systems
C) tendons
D) ligaments
E) spindle fibers
75) Cartilage is an example of which of the
following types of tissue?
A) reproductive B) adipose C) connective D) nervous E) epithelial
A) reproductive B) adipose C) connective D) nervous E) epithelial
76) 1) All of the following statements about
hormones are correct except:
A) They are carried by the circulatory system.
B) They are used to communicate between different organisms.
C) They elicit specific biological responses from target cells.
D) They are produced by endocrine glands.
E) They are modified amino acids, peptides, or steroid molecules.
A) They are carried by the circulatory system.
B) They are used to communicate between different organisms.
C) They elicit specific biological responses from target cells.
D) They are produced by endocrine glands.
E) They are modified amino acids, peptides, or steroid molecules.
77) 2) Hormones are able to control homeostasis
because
A) they may be found in the lymphatic system.
B) they are not produced by exocrine glands.
C) they are steroids.
D) they are subject to negative feedback.
E) they are present at low concentrations.
A) they may be found in the lymphatic system.
B) they are not produced by exocrine glands.
C) they are steroids.
D) they are subject to negative feedback.
E) they are present at low concentrations.
78) 3) An overdose of which hormone would result
in the molting of insects?
A) ecdysone
B) prothoracic hormone
C) oxytocin
D) juvenile hormone
E) brain hormone
A) ecdysone
B) prothoracic hormone
C) oxytocin
D) juvenile hormone
E) brain hormone
79) 4) Which of the following hormonal changes
would result in the molt of an insect from an immature stage to an adult?
A) increase in ecdysone, decrease in juvenile hormone
B) increase in both ecdysone and juvenile hormone
C) decrease in ecdysone, increase in juvenile hormone
D) decrease in both ecdysone and juvenile hormone
E) None of these choices is correct because molting is controlled strictly by the nervous system.
A) increase in ecdysone, decrease in juvenile hormone
B) increase in both ecdysone and juvenile hormone
C) decrease in ecdysone, increase in juvenile hormone
D) decrease in both ecdysone and juvenile hormone
E) None of these choices is correct because molting is controlled strictly by the nervous system.
80) 5) What do nitrous oxide and epinephrine have
in common?
A) They both function as hormones.
B) They both function as neurotransmitters.
C) They are both involved in the "fight-or-flight" response.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
A) They both function as hormones.
B) They both function as neurotransmitters.
C) They are both involved in the "fight-or-flight" response.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
81) Prostaglandins are derived from
A)
amino acids. B) sugars. C) steroids. D) fatty acids. E) ammonia
82) Substance X is secreted by one cell, travels
a short distance through interstitial fluid, and produces an effect in a cell
immediately adjacent to the original secreting cell. All of the following terms
might fit this substance except
A) growth factor.
B) nitric oxide.
C) prostaglandin.
D) neurotransmitter.
E) pheromone.
A) growth factor.
B) nitric oxide.
C) prostaglandin.
D) neurotransmitter.
E) pheromone.
83) Aspirin and ibuprofen affect the production
of
A) prostaglandins.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) histamine.
D) interleukins.
E) hormones.
A) prostaglandins.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) histamine.
D) interleukins.
E) hormones.
84) 9) Based on their effects, which choice could
be considered antagonists?
A) prostaglandin F and nitrous oxide
B) neurosecretory cells and neurotransmitters
C) growth hormone and ecdysone
D) hormones and target cells
E) endocrine and exocrine glands
A) prostaglandin F and nitrous oxide
B) neurosecretory cells and neurotransmitters
C) growth hormone and ecdysone
D) hormones and target cells
E) endocrine and exocrine glands
85) A cell that contains membrane proteins
enabling a hormone to selectively bind to its plasma membrane is called a(n)
A) endocrine cell. B) target cell. C) regulatory cell. D) plasma cell. E) secretory cell.
A) endocrine cell. B) target cell. C) regulatory cell. D) plasma cell. E) secretory cell.
86) Only certain cells in the body are target
cells for the steroid hormone aldosterone. Which of the following is the best
explanation for why these are the only cells that respond to this hormone?
A) Only target cells contain receptors for aldosterone.
B) Nontarget cells convert aldosterone to a hormone to which they do respond.
C) Nontarget cells destroy aldosterone before it can produce its effect.
D) Only target cells are exposed to aldosterone.
E) Aldosterone is unable to enter nontarget cells.
A) Only target cells contain receptors for aldosterone.
B) Nontarget cells convert aldosterone to a hormone to which they do respond.
C) Nontarget cells destroy aldosterone before it can produce its effect.
D) Only target cells are exposed to aldosterone.
E) Aldosterone is unable to enter nontarget cells.
87) A varying response to a common chemical
messenger is possible because
A) the circulatory system regulates responses to hormones by routing the hormones to specific targets.
B) various target cells differ in their receptors to the same hormone.
C) each cell knows how it fits into the body's master plan.
D) various target cells have different genes.
E) the hormone is chemically altered in different ways as it travels through different branches of the circulatory system.
A) the circulatory system regulates responses to hormones by routing the hormones to specific targets.
B) various target cells differ in their receptors to the same hormone.
C) each cell knows how it fits into the body's master plan.
D) various target cells have different genes.
E) the hormone is chemically altered in different ways as it travels through different branches of the circulatory system.
88) An enzyme cascade
A) activates the parathyroid gland.
B) takes several days to occur.
C) ends in steroid hormone release.
D) increases the response to a hormone.
E) initiates regulation of the nervous system.
A) activates the parathyroid gland.
B) takes several days to occur.
C) ends in steroid hormone release.
D) increases the response to a hormone.
E) initiates regulation of the nervous system.
89) Frequently, very few molecules of a hormone
are required to effect changes in a target cell. This is because
A) the mechanism of hormonal action involves an enzyme cascade that amplifies the response to a hormone.
B) hormones are lipid soluble and readily penetrate the membranes of the target cell.
C) hormones are large molecules that persist for years and can repeatedly stimulate the same cell.
D) the mechanism of hormonal action involves memory cells that have had prior contact with the hormone and immediately respond to its presence.
E) the mechanism of hormonal action involves the rapid replication of the hormone within the target cell to quickly magnify the hormone's effect.
A) the mechanism of hormonal action involves an enzyme cascade that amplifies the response to a hormone.
B) hormones are lipid soluble and readily penetrate the membranes of the target cell.
C) hormones are large molecules that persist for years and can repeatedly stimulate the same cell.
D) the mechanism of hormonal action involves memory cells that have had prior contact with the hormone and immediately respond to its presence.
E) the mechanism of hormonal action involves the rapid replication of the hormone within the target cell to quickly magnify the hormone's effect.
90) Two kinds of cells may respond differently to
the same steroid hormone because
A) they have different acceptor proteins on the chromatin.
B) they have different receptor proteins within the cell.
C) the acceptor proteins are associated with different genes in the two kinds of cells.
D) steroid hormones usually transmit signals that are antagonistic.
E) the hormone-receptor complex is transcribed and processed differently in the two kinds of cells.
A) they have different acceptor proteins on the chromatin.
B) they have different receptor proteins within the cell.
C) the acceptor proteins are associated with different genes in the two kinds of cells.
D) steroid hormones usually transmit signals that are antagonistic.
E) the hormone-receptor complex is transcribed and processed differently in the two kinds of cells.
91) What do budding and gemmules have in common?
A) Both produce large numbers of offspring.
B) Both occur in cnidarians.
C) Both are types of asexual reproduction.
D) A and B are correct.
E) Both occur in sponges.
A) Both produce large numbers of offspring.
B) Both occur in cnidarians.
C) Both are types of asexual reproduction.
D) A and B are correct.
E) Both occur in sponges.
92) Asexual reproduction in animals might involve
A) regeneration.
B) fragmentation and gemmule production.
C) fission and budding.
D) A and B only.
E) A, B, and C.
A) regeneration.
B) fragmentation and gemmule production.
C) fission and budding.
D) A and B only.
E) A, B, and C.
93) Which of the following are possible
advantages of asexual reproduction?
A) It enables the species to rapidly colonize new regions.
B) It enhances genetic variability in the species.
C) It allows the species to endure periods of fluctuating or unstable environmental conditions.
D) A and B only.
E) A, B, and C.
A) It enables the species to rapidly colonize new regions.
B) It enhances genetic variability in the species.
C) It allows the species to endure periods of fluctuating or unstable environmental conditions.
D) A and B only.
E) A, B, and C.
94) Why do genetic mutations in asexual organisms
lead to more evolutionary change than genetic mutations in sexual forms?
A) More genetic variation is present in organisms that reproduce asexually.
B) Asexual organisms have more dominant genes than organisms that reproduce sexually.
C) Asexual organisms devote more time and energy to the process of reproduction.
D) Sexual organisms can produce more offspring in a given time.
E) The haploid mutations of asexual organisms are immediately expressed.
A) More genetic variation is present in organisms that reproduce asexually.
B) Asexual organisms have more dominant genes than organisms that reproduce sexually.
C) Asexual organisms devote more time and energy to the process of reproduction.
D) Sexual organisms can produce more offspring in a given time.
E) The haploid mutations of asexual organisms are immediately expressed.
95) What are the advantages of asexual
reproduction?
A) It enhances the survival rates of parents.
B) The limited number of offspring prevents overpopulation.
C) It promotes genetic stability.
D) It promotes geographic distribution of species.
E) It allows animals to replace lost appendages.
A) It enhances the survival rates of parents.
B) The limited number of offspring prevents overpopulation.
C) It promotes genetic stability.
D) It promotes geographic distribution of species.
E) It allows animals to replace lost appendages.
96) Which of the following is a form of asexual
reproduction?
A) parthenogenesis
B) protandry
C) protogyny
D) hermaphroditism
E) anadromesis
A) parthenogenesis
B) protandry
C) protogyny
D) hermaphroditism
E) anadromesis
97) You observe an organism with the following
characteristics: parthenogenetic reproduction, internal development of embryos,
presence of an amnion, lack of parental care of young. Of the following, the
organism is probably a(an)
A) mammal. B) lizard. C) bird. D) frog. E) earthworm.
A) mammal. B) lizard. C) bird. D) frog. E) earthworm.
98) Which animal would be least likely to be
hermaphroditic?
A) liver fluke B) tapeworm C) lobster D) earthworm E) barnacle
A) liver fluke B) tapeworm C) lobster D) earthworm E) barnacle
99) Why is sexual reproduction important?
A) It can result in numerous offspring in a short amount of time.
B) The resulting diverse phenotypes may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment.
C) It allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal conditions.
D) It enables isolated animals to colonize a habitat rapidly.
E) Both A and D are important.
A) It can result in numerous offspring in a short amount of time.
B) The resulting diverse phenotypes may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment.
C) It allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal conditions.
D) It enables isolated animals to colonize a habitat rapidly.
E) Both A and D are important.
100) Which of the following is not required for
internal fertilization?
A) internal development of the embryo
B) copulatory organ
C) sperm receptacle
D) behavioral interaction
E) All of the above are necessary for internal fertilization.
A) internal development of the embryo
B) copulatory organ
C) sperm receptacle
D) behavioral interaction
E) All of the above are necessary for internal fertilization.
101) Why is internal fertilization considered more
advantageous than external fertilization?
A) Usually fewer offspring are produced, so ample food supply is available.
B) The increased survival rate results in rapid population increases.
C) The smaller number of offspring often receive a greater amount of parental protection.
D) Usually a smaller number of genes are present, which promotes genetic stability.
E) The time and energy devoted to reproduction is decreased.
A) Usually fewer offspring are produced, so ample food supply is available.
B) The increased survival rate results in rapid population increases.
C) The smaller number of offspring often receive a greater amount of parental protection.
D) Usually a smaller number of genes are present, which promotes genetic stability.
E) The time and energy devoted to reproduction is decreased.
102) Internal and external fertilization both
A) produce a zygote.
B) occur in vertebrates.
C) occur in eutherian animals.
D) A and B only are correct.
E) A and C only are correct.
A) produce a zygote.
B) occur in vertebrates.
C) occur in eutherian animals.
D) A and B only are correct.
E) A and C only are correct.
103) Organisms that produce amniote eggs, in
general
A) invest more parenting energy than do placental animals.
B) invest most of their reproductive energy in the embryonic and early postnatal development of their offspring.
C) produce more gametes than do those animals with external fertilization and development.
D) have a higher embryo mortality rate than do those with unprotected embryos.
E) All of the above are correct.
A) invest more parenting energy than do placental animals.
B) invest most of their reproductive energy in the embryonic and early postnatal development of their offspring.
C) produce more gametes than do those animals with external fertilization and development.
D) have a higher embryo mortality rate than do those with unprotected embryos.
E) All of the above are correct.
104) Which of these is not a correct statement
about reproduction in invertebrates?
A) A few species split open to release gametes to the environment.
B) Some invertebrates have structures that store sperm.
C) Many invertebrates utilize external fertilization.
D) Many invertebrates have separate sexes.
E) Invertebrates do not engage in copulation.
A) A few species split open to release gametes to the environment.
B) Some invertebrates have structures that store sperm.
C) Many invertebrates utilize external fertilization.
D) Many invertebrates have separate sexes.
E) Invertebrates do not engage in copulation.
105) A cloaca is an anatomical structure found in
most vertebrates, which functions as
A) a common exit for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems.
B) a gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening.
C) a specialized sperm-transfer device produced by males.
D) a region bordered by the labia minora and clitoris in females.
E) a source of nutrients for developing sperm in the testes.
A) a common exit for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems.
B) a gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening.
C) a specialized sperm-transfer device produced by males.
D) a region bordered by the labia minora and clitoris in females.
E) a source of nutrients for developing sperm in the testes.
106) Which of the following is a function of the
contents of the acrosome during fertilization?
A) to help propel the sperm
B) to digest the exterior coats of the egg
C) to trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm cell
D) to nourish the mitochondria of the sperm
E) to block polyspermy
A) to help propel the sperm
B) to digest the exterior coats of the egg
C) to trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm cell
D) to nourish the mitochondria of the sperm
E) to block polyspermy
107) Which of the following statements is (are)
true concerning the vitelline layer of the sea urchin egg?
A) It is outside the fertilization membrane.
B) It has receptor molecules that are specific for binding acrosomal proteins.
C) It releases calcium, which initiates the cortical reaction.
D) Only A and B are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
A) It is outside the fertilization membrane.
B) It has receptor molecules that are specific for binding acrosomal proteins.
C) It releases calcium, which initiates the cortical reaction.
D) Only A and B are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
108) The cortical reaction functions directly in
the
A) formation of a fertilization membrane.
B) generation of a nervelike impulse by the egg cell.
C) production of a fast block to polyspermy.
D) fusion of egg and sperm nuclei.
E) release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm cell.
A) formation of a fertilization membrane.
B) generation of a nervelike impulse by the egg cell.
C) production of a fast block to polyspermy.
D) fusion of egg and sperm nuclei.
E) release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm cell.
109) What causes the "slow block" to polyspermy?
A) formation of the fertilization membrane
B) a transient voltage change across the membrane
C) the jelly coat blocking sperm penetration
D) inactivation of the sperm acrosome
E) the consumption of yolk protein
A) formation of the fertilization membrane
B) a transient voltage change across the membrane
C) the jelly coat blocking sperm penetration
D) inactivation of the sperm acrosome
E) the consumption of yolk protein
110) Which of the following is least related to
the others?
A) cortical reaction
B) slow block to polyspermy
C) bindin
D) fertilization membrane
E) cortical granules
A) cortical reaction
B) slow block to polyspermy
C) bindin
D) fertilization membrane
E) cortical granules
111) If an egg cell contained EDTA, a chemical
that binds calcium and magnesium, what effect would this have on reproduction?
A) The zygote would not contain 46 chromosomes.
B) The fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked.
C) The fertilization envelope would not be formed.
D) The acrosomal reaction would be blocked.
E) The fast block to polyspermy would not occur.
A) The zygote would not contain 46 chromosomes.
B) The fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked.
C) The fertilization envelope would not be formed.
D) The acrosomal reaction would be blocked.
E) The fast block to polyspermy would not occur.
112) Which statement about egg developement is
true?
A) The contents of the cortical granules contribute to the fast block to polyspermy.
B) The mRNA involved with early activation of the egg arises from the sperm nucleus.
C) A second messenger system is activated following fertilization.
D) Eggs without a nucleus cannot initiate division.
E) The sperm and egg micronuclei have fused by the end of the cortical reaction.
A) The contents of the cortical granules contribute to the fast block to polyspermy.
B) The mRNA involved with early activation of the egg arises from the sperm nucleus.
C) A second messenger system is activated following fertilization.
D) Eggs without a nucleus cannot initiate division.
E) The sperm and egg micronuclei have fused by the end of the cortical reaction.
113) Arrange the following stages of fertilization
and early development into a proper sequence.
I. onset of new DNA synthesis, II. cortical reaction, III. first cell division, IV. acrosomal reaction; plasma membrane depolarization, V. fusion of egg and sperm nuclei complete
A) III, V, I, IV, II B) IV, II, V, I, III C) V, III, I, II, IV D) V, I, IV, II, III E) I, III, II, IV, V
I. onset of new DNA synthesis, II. cortical reaction, III. first cell division, IV. acrosomal reaction; plasma membrane depolarization, V. fusion of egg and sperm nuclei complete
A) III, V, I, IV, II B) IV, II, V, I, III C) V, III, I, II, IV D) V, I, IV, II, III E) I, III, II, IV, V
114) All of the following statements about
fertilization are correct except:
A) It invaginates the blastula to form the gastrula.
B) A slow block to polyspermy occurs when cortical granules erect a fertilization membrane.
C) Gamete fusion depolarizes the egg cell membrane and sets up a fast block to polyspermy.
D) Egg cell depolarization initiates the cortical reaction.
E) It reinstates diploidy.
A) It invaginates the blastula to form the gastrula.
B) A slow block to polyspermy occurs when cortical granules erect a fertilization membrane.
C) Gamete fusion depolarizes the egg cell membrane and sets up a fast block to polyspermy.
D) Egg cell depolarization initiates the cortical reaction.
E) It reinstates diploidy.
115) What part of the sperm first contacts the egg
plasma membrane?
A) the posterior acrosomal membrane
B) the anterior plasma membrane
C) the fertilization membrane
D) the posterior plasma membrane
E) the anterior acrosomal membrane
A) the posterior acrosomal membrane
B) the anterior plasma membrane
C) the fertilization membrane
D) the posterior plasma membrane
E) the anterior acrosomal membrane
116) All of the following occur during early
cleavage of an animal zygote except:
A) the nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio of the cells increases.
B) The embryo grows significantly in mass.
C) The developing cell undergoes mitosis.
D) The developing cell undergoes cytokinesis.
E) The ratio of surface area to volume of the cells increases.
A) the nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio of the cells increases.
B) The embryo grows significantly in mass.
C) The developing cell undergoes mitosis.
D) The developing cell undergoes cytokinesis.
E) The ratio of surface area to volume of the cells increases.
117) How does the animal pole differ from the
vegetal pole of a zygote?
A) The animal pole has a higher concentration of yolk.
B) The polar bodies bud from this region.
C) The posterior end of the embryo forms here.
D) The animal pole gives rise to the hemisphere with yellow yolk.
E) The blastomere originates in the animal pole.
A) The animal pole has a higher concentration of yolk.
B) The polar bodies bud from this region.
C) The posterior end of the embryo forms here.
D) The animal pole gives rise to the hemisphere with yellow yolk.
E) The blastomere originates in the animal pole.
118) Which of the following is correct about the
yolk of the frog egg?
A) It is concentrated at the animal pole.
B) It is homogeneously arranged in the egg.
C) It impedes the formation of a primitive streak.
D) It prevents gastrulation.
E) It leads to unequal rates of cleavage for the animal pole compared to the vegetal pole.
A) It is concentrated at the animal pole.
B) It is homogeneously arranged in the egg.
C) It impedes the formation of a primitive streak.
D) It prevents gastrulation.
E) It leads to unequal rates of cleavage for the animal pole compared to the vegetal pole.
119) You observe an embryo in which the initial
cleavage divisions are radial and meroblastic, extraembryonic membranes
develop, and a primitive streak is formed. How would you identify this
organism, based on the information given?
A) mammal
B) reptile or bird
C) fish or amphibian
D) bird or mammal
E) invertebrate
A) mammal
B) reptile or bird
C) fish or amphibian
D) bird or mammal
E) invertebrate
120) Meroblastic cleavage occurs in which of the
following?
I. sea urchins
II. humans
III. birds
A) I only B) III only C) I and II only D) I and III only E) II and III only
I. sea urchins
II. humans
III. birds
A) I only B) III only C) I and II only D) I and III only E) II and III only
121) An organism that lacks integration centers
A) will not have a nervous system.
B) cannot receive stimuli.
C) will not be able to interpret stimuli.
D) can be expected to lack myelinated neurons.
E) Both A and D are correct.
A) will not have a nervous system.
B) cannot receive stimuli.
C) will not be able to interpret stimuli.
D) can be expected to lack myelinated neurons.
E) Both A and D are correct.
122) What do muscles, nerves, and glands have in
common?
A) They are target cells.
B) They are referred to as postsynaptic cells.
C) They synapse with neurons.
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
A) They are target cells.
B) They are referred to as postsynaptic cells.
C) They synapse with neurons.
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
123) Integration of simple responses to certain
stimuli, such as the patellar reflex, is accomplished by which of the
following?
A) cerebellum B) medulla C) spinal cord D) corpus callosum E) hypothalamus
A) cerebellum B) medulla C) spinal cord D) corpus callosum E) hypothalamus
124) The general functions of the nervous system
include which of the following?
I. integration
II. motor output
III. sensory input
A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) I, II, and III
I. integration
II. motor output
III. sensory input
A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) I, II, and III
125) A ganglion is a group of nerve cell bodies
A) anywhere in the nervous system.
B) within the brain.
C) within the spinal cord.
D) in the peripheral nervous system.
E) in the central nervous system.
A) anywhere in the nervous system.
B) within the brain.
C) within the spinal cord.
D) in the peripheral nervous system.
E) in the central nervous system.
126) The blood-brain barrier
A) is formed by tight junctions.
B) provides support to the brain tissue.
C) uses chemical signals to communicate with the spinal cord.
D) is formed by oligodendrocytes.
E) tightly regulates the intracellular environment of the CNS.
A) is formed by tight junctions.
B) provides support to the brain tissue.
C) uses chemical signals to communicate with the spinal cord.
D) is formed by oligodendrocytes.
E) tightly regulates the intracellular environment of the CNS.
127) A squirrel chewing the insulation off an
electrical wire is analogous to
A) Schwann cells failing to myelinate axons of the CNA.
B) the nodes of Ranvier in the PNS.
C) the deterioration of the brain-blood barrier.
D) demyelination of the nervous system.
E) the depolarization of the unmyelinated axons.
A) Schwann cells failing to myelinate axons of the CNA.
B) the nodes of Ranvier in the PNS.
C) the deterioration of the brain-blood barrier.
D) demyelination of the nervous system.
E) the depolarization of the unmyelinated axons.
128) Which of the following statements is false?
A) Gray matter is the site of neuronal integration.
B) Astrocytes can communicate with nerve cells.
C) The outside of a cell is negative with respect to the inside of a cell.
D) Squid axons are a model system for nerve conductance.
E) All cells have a membrane potential.
A) Gray matter is the site of neuronal integration.
B) Astrocytes can communicate with nerve cells.
C) The outside of a cell is negative with respect to the inside of a cell.
D) Squid axons are a model system for nerve conductance.
E) All cells have a membrane potential.
129) If the concentration of potassium in the
cytoplasm of a nerve cell with a resting membrane potential of
-70 mV were elevated above normal, the new resting potential would
A) still be -70 mV.
B) reverse polarity.
C) be 0 mV.
D) be -69 mV or higher.
E) be -71 mV or lower.
-70 mV were elevated above normal, the new resting potential would
A) still be -70 mV.
B) reverse polarity.
C) be 0 mV.
D) be -69 mV or higher.
E) be -71 mV or lower.
130) Neurons at rest are not at the equilibrium
potential for K+ because the cell membrane is
A) only permeable to Na+.
B) slightly permeable to Na+.
C) not permeable to K+.
D) only permeable to K+.
E) not permeable to Na+.
A) only permeable to Na+.
B) slightly permeable to Na+.
C) not permeable to K+.
D) only permeable to K+.
E) not permeable to Na+.
131) If an otherwise normal nerve cell were made
permeable to large negative ions, what would happen?
A) The membrane potential would become positive.
B) The membrane potential would not form.
C) The Na+/K+ pump would not function.
D) Potassium would not leave the resting cell.
E) Sodium would not enter the resting cell.
A) The membrane potential would become positive.
B) The membrane potential would not form.
C) The Na+/K+ pump would not function.
D) Potassium would not leave the resting cell.
E) Sodium would not enter the resting cell.
132) The sodium-potassium pump of neurons pumps
A) Na+ into the cell and K+ out of the cell.
B) Na+ and K+ into the cell.
C) Na+ and K+ into the cell and H+ out of the cell through an antiport.
D) Na+ and K+ out of the cell.
E) Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell.
A) Na+ into the cell and K+ out of the cell.
B) Na+ and K+ into the cell.
C) Na+ and K+ into the cell and H+ out of the cell through an antiport.
D) Na+ and K+ out of the cell.
E) Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell.
133) The questions below refer to the following
information:
An unknown organism has been discovered. It contains long cells with excitable membranes that scientists suspect are used for rapid information transfer. The membrane of the cell is permeable only to ion X, which carries a negative charge. Active transport pumps in the membrane move X into the cell while simultaneously moving ion Y, also carrying a negative charge, out of the cell.
An unknown organism has been discovered. It contains long cells with excitable membranes that scientists suspect are used for rapid information transfer. The membrane of the cell is permeable only to ion X, which carries a negative charge. Active transport pumps in the membrane move X into the cell while simultaneously moving ion Y, also carrying a negative charge, out of the cell.
134) Which
of the following is true about the establishment of the resting membrane
potential in this cell?
A) A negative resting potential is directly produced by the diffusion of Y- into the cell.
B) The resting potential of this cell will be zero.
C) A positive resting potential is directly produced by the diffusion of X- out of the cell.
D) The resting potential of this cell will be negative.
E) A negative resting potential is directly produced by the pump moving a negative charge into the cell.
A) A negative resting potential is directly produced by the diffusion of Y- into the cell.
B) The resting potential of this cell will be zero.
C) A positive resting potential is directly produced by the diffusion of X- out of the cell.
D) The resting potential of this cell will be negative.
E) A negative resting potential is directly produced by the pump moving a negative charge into the cell.
135) When neurotransmitter Z is released into the
extracellular fluid in contact with a portion of the cell membrane, channels
open that allow both X- and Y- through the membrane. Which of the following is
incorrect?
A) The membrane will depolarize.
B) Y- will diffuse into the cell.
C) The channels are chemically gated.
D) The magnitude of the potential will immediately increase.
E) X- will diffuse out of the cell.
A) The membrane will depolarize.
B) Y- will diffuse into the cell.
C) The channels are chemically gated.
D) The magnitude of the potential will immediately increase.
E) X- will diffuse out of the cell.
136) The threshold potential of a membrane
A) opens voltage-sensitive gates that result in the rapid outflow of sodium ions.
B) is a graded potential that is proportional to the strength of a stimulus.
C) is equal to about 70 mV.
D) is equal to about 35 mV.
E) is the depolarization that is needed to generate an action potential.
A) opens voltage-sensitive gates that result in the rapid outflow of sodium ions.
B) is a graded potential that is proportional to the strength of a stimulus.
C) is equal to about 70 mV.
D) is equal to about 35 mV.
E) is the depolarization that is needed to generate an action potential.
137) When an organism dies, its muscles remain in
a contracted state termed rigor mortis for a brief period of time. Which of the
following most directly contributes to this phenomenon?
A) no ATP to break bonds between the thick and thin filaments
B) no oxygen supplied to muscle
C) no energy for the synthesis of actin and myosin
D) no ATP to move cross-bridges
E) no calcium to bind to troponin
A) no ATP to break bonds between the thick and thin filaments
B) no oxygen supplied to muscle
C) no energy for the synthesis of actin and myosin
D) no ATP to move cross-bridges
E) no calcium to bind to troponin
138) Muscle cells are stimulated by
neurotransmitters released from the tips of
A) T tubules.
B) motor cell axons.
C) motor cell dendrites.
D) sensory cell dendrites.
E) sensory cell axons.
A) T tubules.
B) motor cell axons.
C) motor cell dendrites.
D) sensory cell dendrites.
E) sensory cell axons.
139) Which of the following does not form part of
the thin filaments of a muscle cell?
A) tropomyosin
B) calcium-binding site
C) troponin
D) myosin
E) actin
A) tropomyosin
B) calcium-binding site
C) troponin
D) myosin
E) actin
140) What is the role of calcium in muscle
contractions?
A) to bind with troponin, changing its shape so that the actin filament is exposed
B) to break the cross-bridges as a cofactor in the hydrolysis of ATP
C) to transmit the action potential across the neuromuscular junction
D) to spread the action potential through the T tubules
E) to reestablish the polarization of the plasma's membrane following an action potential
A) to bind with troponin, changing its shape so that the actin filament is exposed
B) to break the cross-bridges as a cofactor in the hydrolysis of ATP
C) to transmit the action potential across the neuromuscular junction
D) to spread the action potential through the T tubules
E) to reestablish the polarization of the plasma's membrane following an action potential
141) During muscle contraction, the ion that leaks
out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum and induces myofibrils to contract is
A) Cl-. B) K+. C) Mg2+. D) Ca2+. E) Na+.
A) Cl-. B) K+. C) Mg2+. D) Ca2+. E) Na+.
The question below refers to the following
information.
1. Tropomyosin shifts and unblocks the cross-bridge binding sites.
2. Calcium is released and binds to troponin.
3. Transverse tubules depolarize the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. The thin filaments are ratcheted across the thick filaments by the heads of the myosin molecules and ATP.
5. An action potential in a motor neuron causes the axon to release acetylcholine, which depolarizes the muscle cell membrane.
1. Tropomyosin shifts and unblocks the cross-bridge binding sites.
2. Calcium is released and binds to troponin.
3. Transverse tubules depolarize the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. The thin filaments are ratcheted across the thick filaments by the heads of the myosin molecules and ATP.
5. An action potential in a motor neuron causes the axon to release acetylcholine, which depolarizes the muscle cell membrane.
142) For the events listed above, which of the
following is the correct sequence for their occurrence during the excitation
and contraction of a muscle cell?
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 C) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 D) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 E) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 C) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 D) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 E) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
143) Which of the following could you find in the
lumen of a transverse tubule?
A) extracellular fluid
B) myosin
C) cytoplasm
D) sarcomeres
E) actin
A) extracellular fluid
B) myosin
C) cytoplasm
D) sarcomeres
E) actin
144) A sustained muscle contraction due to a lack
of relaxation between successive stimuli is called
A) an all-or-none response.
B) fatigue.
C) a spasm.
D) tonus.
E) tetanus.
A) an all-or-none response.
B) fatigue.
C) a spasm.
D) tonus.
E) tetanus.
145) The breast muscle of turkeys and chickens is
usually referred to as light meat, whereas that of wild ducks and geese is
described as dark meat. Which of the following is consistent with this
observation?
A) The darker body color of ducks and geese provides protective camouflage against predators.
B) Turkeys and chickens are not closely related to ducks and geese.
C) Turkeys and chickens do not fly for sustained periods; ducks and geese do.
D) The muscles of these two groups of birds contain different filamentous proteins.
E) Turkeys and chickens do not use their breast muscle, whereas ducks and geese do.
A) The darker body color of ducks and geese provides protective camouflage against predators.
B) Turkeys and chickens are not closely related to ducks and geese.
C) Turkeys and chickens do not fly for sustained periods; ducks and geese do.
D) The muscles of these two groups of birds contain different filamentous proteins.
E) Turkeys and chickens do not use their breast muscle, whereas ducks and geese do.
146) Which of the following are shared by
skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle?
A) transverse tubules
B) A bands and I bands
C) gap junctions
D) motor units
E) thick and thin filaments
A) transverse tubules
B) A bands and I bands
C) gap junctions
D) motor units
E) thick and thin filaments
147) Which type of muscle is responsible for
peristalsis along the digestive tract?
A) voluntary B) smooth C) skeletal D) striated E) cardiac
A) voluntary B) smooth C) skeletal D) striated E) cardiac
148) Which adaptation best accounts for the
efficiency of the dolphin as it is adapted to movement through water?
A) its large oarlike flippers
B) the presence of a large powerful tail
C) the blowhole located on the top of its head
D) the torpedo shape of its body
E) none of these
A) its large oarlike flippers
B) the presence of a large powerful tail
C) the blowhole located on the top of its head
D) the torpedo shape of its body
E) none of these
149) Hydrostatic skeletons are normally used for
movement by all of the following except
A) crustaceans. B) cnidarians. C) annelids. D) flatworms. E) nematodes.
A) crustaceans. B) cnidarians. C) annelids. D) flatworms. E) nematodes.
150) What structural feature contributes most to
the diverse adaptations for animal movement?
A) nervous system
B) skeletal system
C) muscular system
D) sensory system
E) both B and C
A) nervous system
B) skeletal system
C) muscular system
D) sensory system
E) both B and C
151) Hair cells can be found in all of the
following locations except
A) the lateral line system of fish.
B) the statocysts of invertebrates.
C) the organ of Corti in humans.
D) the retina of mammals.
E) the semicircular canals in mammals.
A) the lateral line system of fish.
B) the statocysts of invertebrates.
C) the organ of Corti in humans.
D) the retina of mammals.
E) the semicircular canals in mammals.
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